Thursday, 17 October 2019

DSSSB Pharmacist Exam Previous Year Questions Paper

1.Rate of bioavailability is most rapid in
A. Solutions 
B. Tablet's
C. Controlled release products
D. Hard gelatine capsules

2. Noyes Whitney equation is related to
A.  Zero order kinetics
B. First order kinetics
C. Pharmacodynamics
D. Dissolution 

3. Which type of bade is required for antibiotic ointment
A. PEG base
B. Absorption base
C. Hydrocarbon base 
D. None of the above

4. Drugs in suspension and semi-solid formulation always degrade by
A. Zero order kinetics 
B. First order kinetics
C. Second order kinetics
D. Non-linear kinetics

5. Pacemaker of the heart is
A. AV node
B. SA node 
C. Purkinje node
D. Bundle of his

6. The coeliac ganglion is mainly
A. Sympathetic 
B. Parasympathetic
C. Both sympathetic and parasympathetic mixed
D. Sensory and motor but not autonomic

7. Action of parasympathetic system on Iris musculature is
A. Contraction of Iris sphincter 
B. Dilatation of Iris sphincter
C. No action on Iris sphincter
D. Effects cannot be predicted

8. Carban dioxide is converted to bicarbonate by the enzyme
A. Carbonic hydrase
B. Carbonic anhydrase 
C. Bicarbonate synthase
D. None of the above

9. Which of the following is a Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM)
A. Clomiphene
B. Letrozole
C. Tamoxifen 
D. All of the above

10. What will happen if coffee is taken shortly after cimetidine
A. Duration of effect of caffeine is reduced
B. Duration of effect of caffeine is prolonged 
C. There is no change in duration of effect of caffeine
D. Cannot be predicted

11. Excretion of which drug will be increased if urine is made more alkaline
A. Procaine
B. Propranolol
C. Phenobarbital 
D. All of the above

12. Which of the drug combinations are synergistic
A. Ciprofloxacin - Theophylline
B. Probenecid - Penicillin 
C. Penicillin - Aminoglycoside
D. All of the above

13. Effects of taking warfarin along with aspirin may cause
A. Congestive heart failure
B. Increased bleeding 
C. Kidney damage
D. Liver damage

14. All of the given drug can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives Except
A. Enalapril 
B. Rifampicin
C. Tetracycline
D. Phenobarbital

15. Anti TB drug which can cause ototoxicity is
A. Ethambutol
B. Streptomycin 
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Rifampicin

16. Which of the following drugs is not used in the standard RNTCP regime for MDR-TB
A. Rifampicin 
B. Kanamycin
C. Cycloserine
D. Ofloxacin

17. A malignant condition with abnormal increase Granulocyte WBC blood will be classifieds as
A. Lymphoid leukemia
B. Myeloid leukemia 
C. Lymphoma
D. All of the above

18. Formalin contains  ________ formaldehyde
A. 27 %
B. 54 %
C. 37 % 
D. None of the above

19. Silver sulfadiazine is used in management of burn because it high activity against
A. Staphylococcus
B. Pseudomonas 
C. Mycobacterium
D. Corynebacterium

20. Atropine blocks which of the following neurotransmitter
A. Dopamine
B. Epinephrine
C. Nor epinephrine
D. Acetylcholine 

21. Which is not a side effect associated with corticosteroid treatment
A. Skeletal muscle weakness
B. Sodium retention
C. Lower resistance to infection
D. Hypoglycemia 

22. Airway obstruction during anaphylaxis can be best treated
A. Salbutamol
B. Adrenaline 
C. Diphenhydramine
D. Noradrenaline

23. All the following eye drops may cause a miosis, Except
A. Timolol
B. Neostigmine
C. Atropine 
D. Pilocarpine

24. Greatest absorption of Iron take place in
A. Duodenum 
B. Descending colon
C. Transverse colon
D. Stomach

25. Safest non opioid analgesic for ulcer is
A. Celecoxib 
B. Diclofenac sodium
C. Ibuprofen
D. Paracetamol

26. Allopurinol lowers the plasma concentration of
A. Uric acid 
B. Hypoxanthine
C. Xanthine
D. All of the above

27. In which condition is codeine used
A. Antidiarroeal
B. Antitussive
C. Analgesic
D. All of the above 

28. Which anti asthamatic is not a bronchodilator
A. Formoterol
B. Theophylline
C. Sodium cromoglycate 
D. Ipratropium bromide

29. Which one is a centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxant
A. Carisoprodol 
B. Dantrolene sodium
C. Decamethonium
D. Quinine

30 Which is not a parenteral iron preparation
A. Iron dextran
B. Iron maltose 
C. Iron carboxymaltose
D. Ferrous sucrose

31. Which of the following is NOT a proton pump inhibitor
A. Famotidine 
B. Omeprazole
C. Pantoprazole
D. Lansoprazole

32. Action of which antibiotic may be inhibited by concurrent use of clindamycin
A. Penicillin
B. Erythromycin 
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. All of the above

33. Which vitamin contains cobalt
A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B2
C. Vitamin B6
D. Vitamin B12 

34. Which drug is not used for treating acne
A. Benzoyl peroxide
B. Topical clindamycin
C. Monobenzone 
D. Retinoic acid

35. Drying of soft shell capsule is done by
A. Fluid bed drying
B. Microwave drying
C. Truck drying
D. Vacuum drying 

36. Tablet coating defect is 
A. Orange peel effect
B. Sticking
C. Bridging
D. All of the above 

37. Which of the following is a delayed release system
A. Sugar coated tablet
B. Orally disintegrating tablet
C. Enteric coated tablet 
D. All of the above

38. Lactose is used as
A. Diluent 
B. Glidant
C. Lubricant
D. Disintegrant

39. In sugar coating of tablets, seal coat is done 
A. To prevent moisture penetration 
B. To round edges
C. To smoothen the surface
D. To prevent breakage

40. Which of the following tablets is designed to exert local effect in throat
A. Buccal tablets
B. Sublingual tablets
C. Lozenges 
D. Candies

41. Where will Enteric coated tablets release their medication
A. Oesophagus
B. Small intestines 
C. Stomach
D. Large Intestines

42. Which is a potassium sparing diuretic
A. Triameterene 
B. Chlorthalidone
C. Acetazolamide
D. Mannitol

43. Which drug may be used for stimulating uterine contractions
A. Meprobamate
B. Ketoconazole
C. Oxytocin 
D. Metoprolol

44. Which of the following is a rapidly acting anticoagulant
A. Vitamin K
B. Phenindione
C. Heparin 
D. Warfarin

45. Which of the following is parasympathomimetic
A. Oxymetazoline
B. Cisapride 
C. Ephedrine
D. All of the above

46. Effect of dopamine on peripheral circulatory system are
A. Decrease in heart rate and blood pressure
B. Decrease in heart rate and increase in BP
C. Increase in heart rate and blood pressure 
D. No effect on peripheral circulation

47. Salbutamol is mainly
A. Alpha 1 agonist
B. Beta 1 agonist
C. Beta 2 agonist 
D. All of the above

48. For the calculation of the volume of Distribution one must take into account
A. Concentration of a substance in plasma 
B. Concentration of substance in urine
C. Therapeutical width of drug action
D. A daily dose of drug

49. Greatest reabsorption of Na+ take place in
A. Ascending loop of Henle
B. Proximal convoluted tubule 
C. Distal tubule
D. Collecting ducts

50. Neurotransmitter at neuromuscular junction is 
A. Serotonin
B. Dopamine
C. Acetylcholine 
D. All of the above

51. Parasympathetic innervation of heart is through
A. Brachial nerve
B. 3rd and 5th thoracic nerve
C. Trigeminal nerve
D. Vagus nerve 

52. Stimulation of the sympathetic system will cause
A. Bronchodilation 
B. Brochoconstriction
C. No effect on airways
D. Can't be predicted

53. The Central Drug Laboratory is located in
A. Delhi
B. Lucknow
C. Kolkata 
D. None of the above

54. Which of the following schedules to the drug and cosmetics rules refers to requirements for a pharmacy
A. Schedule M
B. Schedule N 
C. Schedule O
D. Schedule P

55. How much lidocaine is present at a 1:1000 in 30 ml solution
A. 3 gram
B. 300 gm
C. 30 gm 
D. 0.3 mg

56. Normal renal clearance in a normal adult is
A. 80 ml
B. 100 ml
C. 120 ml 
D. 160 ml

57. Which is a folate antagonist used in cancer treatment
A. Methotrexate 
B. Cyclosporin
C. Vincristine
D. Tamoxifen

58. Which is not bacteriostatic antibiotic
A. Chloramphenicol
B. Ampicillin 
C. Tetracycline
D. Sulfadiazine

59. Which is not a treatment for hypoglycemia
A. Glucagon
B. Glucose
C. Insulin 
D. Fruit juice

60. Which is the major action of losartan
A. Selective AT1 receptor antagonist 
B. Selective AT1 receptor antagonist
C. Non selective AT1+AT2 receptor antagonist
D. AT1 receptor agonist

61. Digoxin is mainly eliminated through
A. Intestinal elimination
B. Hepatic metabolism
C. Tubular secretion
D. Glomerular filtration 

62. Which antihypertensive drug can have persistent dry cough as it's side effect
A. Atenolol
B. Enalapril 
C. Methyldopa
D. Diltiazem

63. Na+ Cl" symport in the early distal convoluted tubule of kidney is inhibited by 
A. Thiazides
B. Xipamide
C. Metolazone
D. All of the above 

64. Action of which antibacterial drug can be augmented by acidifying urine
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Contrimoxazole
C. Gentamicin
D. Nitrofurantoin 

65. Astringents are compound that
A. Prevent contact of skin with surroundings
B. Scoothe and soften skin
C. Dissolve intracellular substance the horny skin layer
D. Precipitate Proteins 

66. Which drug is effective in psoriasis
A. Resorcinol
B. Tazarotene 
C. Ketoconazole
D. Thymol

67. Albendazole is effective for
A. Roundworm
B. Hookworm
C. Filaria
D. All of the above 

68. Intolerance reaction with alcohol can occur in patient taking
A. Tetracycline
B. Cimetidine
C. Metronidazole 
D. All of the above

69. Drug of choice for radical curve of vivax malaria is
A. Primaquine 
B. Chloroquine
C. Quinine

70. In active transport
A. Drug is transported by diffusion
B. The cell membrane forms vesicles to engulf molecules
C. Transport is against concentration gradient 
D. There is no energy consumption

71. Which route of drug administration is likely to lead to the first pass effect
A. Oral 
B. Intravenous
C. Intramuscular
D. Intradermal

72. Half Life of a drug is time required to
A. Change the amount of drug in plasma by half during elimination 
B. Metabolize half of the introduced drug in to active metabolite
C. Absorb half of the introduced drug
D. Bind half of the introduced drug to plasma proteins

73. Muscarinic cholinoreceptors are not found in
A. Gastric glands
B. Respiratory system
C. Skeletal muscle end plate 
D. Heart

74. Bronchodilation produced by Ipratropium bromide is due to its action as
A. Nicotinic agonist
B. Nicotinic antagonist
C. Muscarinic agonist
D. Muscarinic antagonist 

75. Which of the following inhibits beta-lactamase enzyme
A. Chloramphenicol
B. Primaquine
C. Sulbactum 
D. Quinine

76. Mannitol is classifieds as
A. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
B. Potassium sparing diuretic
C. Loop diuretic
D. Osmotic diuretic 

77. Which of the following may be used as cheating agent to treat poisoning by heavy metal such as lead or mercury
A. Dimercaprol 
B. Bismuth subnitrate
C. Sodium phosphate
D. None of the above

78. Which of the following is an example of the chemical modification of an active pharmaceutical ingredient
A. Mixing a soluble API with water produce a solution
B. Converting crystalline API in amorphous form
C. Combining an API with citric acid to produce the citrate salt 
D. Mixing a poorly soluble API with water to produce a suspension

79. Which class of drugs can be used for cleaning the bowel before a surgery
A. Antacid
B. H2 agonists
C. Adsorbents
D. Laxative 

80. Minasipran is a
A. Tricyclic Antidepressant
D. None of the above

81. Which of the following does not decrease iron absorption
A. Antacids
B. Ascorbic acid 
C. Both A and B
D. Tetracycline

82. Pernicious anemia is caused due to deficiency of
A. Vitamin B12 
B. Vitamin B1
C. Copper
D. Iron

83. Lovastatin is a
A. Bile acid sequestrant
B. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor 
C. Lipoprotein lipase activator
D. Sterol absorption inhibitor

84. Bactericidal action of cephalosporins is due to
A. Inhibition protein synthesis by binding to bacterial ribosomes
B. Inhibit protein synthesis by binding to tRNA
C. Inhibit synthesis of bacterial cell wall 
D. Distort bacterial gene code

85. Vancomycin is a
A. Lincosamide
B. Aminoglycoside
C. Macrolide
D. Glycopeptide 

86. Prescription drugs are given under which schedule of drug and cosmetics rules
A. Schedule K
B. Schedule H 
C. Schedule R
D. Schedule M

87. A new Schedule was recently introduced in the drugs and cosmetics rules for listing carbapenem class lol and lV generation antibiotics. Which one is it
A. Schedule P1
B. Schedule H1 
C. Schedule X
D. Schedule Z

88. Which type of cell is involved in antibody formation
A. Monocyte
B. Neutrophil
C. Plasma cell 
D. Basophil

89. Carbohydrate is stored in human body mainly as
A. Glucose
B. Glycogen 
C. Starch
D. Inulin

90. Alpha cells in islets of Langerhans produce 
A. Insulin
B. Glucagon 
C. Somatostatin
D. Secretin

91. β adrenergic blocker that is primarily eliminated unchanged by renal excretion
A. Propranolol
B. Metoprolol
C. Atenolol 
D. Esmolol

92. High anticholinergic property is present in the following Antihistaminic
A. Astemizole
B. Diphenhydramine 
C. Terfenadine
D. Cetrizine

93. Patients taking a first generation H1 Antihistaminic should be advised to avoid
A. Taking milk products
B. Driving motor vehicles 
C. Hard physical exertion
D. All of the above

94. Action for which does of aspirin required is the lowest
A. Anti platelet aggregation 
B. Anti inflammatory
C. Analgesic
D. Anti pyretic

95. Which is not an adverse effect seen with Non-Steroidal anti inflammatory drugs
A. Fluid retention
B. Sedation 
C. Gastric irritation
D. Rashes

96. Which is the preferred penicillin for treatment of syphillis
A. Penicillin V
B. Ampicillin
C. Benzathine Penicillin G 
D. Cloxacillin

97. Which anti TB drug does not cause liver toxicity
A. Ethambutol 
B. Pyrazinamide
C. Rifampicin
D. Isoniazid

98. Antifungal drug which is administration only through oral route is
A. Amphotericin B
B. Ketoconazole
C. Griseofulvin 
D. Tolnaftate

99. Characteristic toxicity of ethambutol is
A. Renal damage
B. Pancreatitis
C. Hepatitis
D. Visual defects 

100. Metronidazole can be used for
A. Hook worm
B. Round worm
C. Giardiasis 
D. Kala azar